http://nvidia99999.livejournal.com/ ([identity profile] nvidia99999.livejournal.com) wrote in [community profile] davis_square 2009-08-27 02:36 am (UTC)

Perhaps the OP means that...

Given that the fine is the same regardless of income, then it is regressive because people with lower income end up paying more (proportionally). Wouldn't this make it regressive?
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